Kerala PSC Blood Bank technician Grade II Medical Education Department (031/2020) Mock Test

1. The process of formation of glucose from lactate is called as

2. Presence of protein in a sample of urine is detected by

3. Optimal levels of LDL Cholesterol is

4. Clearance of a substance is given by the formulae

5. According to Beer’s law, concentration of analyte in a solution is directly proportional to

6. To prepare 10mI of 6N HCI, the volume of concentrated HCl required is (Normality
of Conc.HCl is 12)

7. The ideal blood collection tube for Glucose estimation is

8. Serum Total Protein of a 55 yr. old male is 6g/dl, ‘Serum Albumin is 3g/dl. A/G ratio is

9. When subjected to urine aminogram, the solvent front was 6 cm and solute front was
5 cm, the Rf Value is

10. Glass Cuvettes must not be cleaned with

11. Which of these is not a method for estimating blood glucose ?

12. The co-factor required for transamination reactions is

13. Bile salts and Bile pigments in urine are seen in

14. When a molecule absorbs light at one wavelength and reemits light at a longer
wavelength it is called

15. Following were the lipid profile results of a 45 yr. old male

Serum Triglyceride-150mg/dl
Serum Total Cholesterol-200mg/dl
Serum HDL Cholesterol-40mg/dl
The Serum LDL Cholesterol of this man is

16. If the Blood urea of a patient is 85.6, then Blood urea Nitrogen would be

17. The correct order of draw of blood sample is

18. The specific gravity of an Urine sample was found to be 1.005 at 30°C. After correcting
for temperature the specific gravity of the sample would be

19. Transporting of blood sample in icepack is required for the estimation of

20. VLDL should not be calculated if serum triglyceride is greater than

21. All of these are properties of an ideal quality control sample except

22. Which of the following is a Gram positive bacteria ?

23. Disinfection removes _____ from the surface or medium.

24. All the following discs are used to test Antibiotic sensitivity for Pseudomonas
except

25. What is the rate of HIV transmission by a contaminated needle prick ?

26. Which of the following is an agglutination test ?

27. Which of the following is an anaerobic culture method ?

28. The protective HBV antibody level is

29. MIC of an antibiotic can be tested by

30. Bile aesculin test is to

31. Which of the following is not a transport medium ?

32. All the following features are shown by enterobacteriaceae except

33. The best way to collect sputum sample for Mycobacterium culture and microscopy

34. Which is true for STS (Standard Tests for Syphilis) ?

35. The primary diagnosis of HIV is done by

36. Which of the following is characteristic of hookworm egg ?

37. To prepare 1% hypochlorite, how much of bleaching powder is to be added to 1 litre
of water ?

38. As per Biomedical waste management guidelines, the blood bag after use is to be
discarded in bucket with ____ colour.

39. Standard precautions include all except

40. Tyndallisation is a method of sterilization using

41. Which of the following is an enriched media for Salmonella species ?

42. Select the organism which is oxidase test negative.

43. Which of the following antibiotic disc is used to identify MRSA ?

44. Pick up the lactose fermenting bacteria from the following.

45. The peripheral smear of a clinically suspected case of malaria shows intra erythrocytic,
multiple ring forms and some of the rings show multiple nuclei also. Which is the
most probable species ?

46. Cryptococcus neoformans is

47. Bombay blood group is seen in blood group type

48. Rh HDN occurs in

49. Direct Coombs test positive means Coombs serum has bound to

50. Copper sulphate in blood bank is used to screen for

51. Anticoagulant used in blood bank is

52. Febrile reaction occurs in transfusion reaction due to

53. Indications for FFP

54. On high speed centrifuging of blood we obtain

55. Positive Coombs test means we get

56. AII are transfusion transmitted hepatitis except

57. Formalin fixative used in histopathology is

58. Technique used in decalcification are all except

59. Tissue section is cut in histopathology using

60. Formalin pigment is

61. Steps in automated tissue processor are all except

62. Frozen section is done in tissue received in

63. Fixative used in cytology is

64. Commonly used stain in cytology is

65. Van Gieson stain is used to demonstrate

66. PAS stain is used to demonstrate

67. Cells without nucleus in blood are

68. Hemoglobin is composed of

69. At which stage of RBC development hemoglobin first appears in the cell ?

70. The cell in which Barr body counted is

71. Myeloid stem cell gives rise to all except

72. Cell producing platelets are

73. Reagent used for sickling test is

74. Pathology of thalassemia is

75. Pernicious anaemia is a specific type of

76. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to

77. Cell increased in acute leukemia is

78. Cell increased in multiple myeloma is

79. Prothrombin time measures the abnormality in

80. Partial thromboplastin time measures the status of

81. The anticoagulant used for ESR estimation is sodium

82. The anticoagulant used for osmotic fragility is

83. Hematocrit means

84. Leishman stain is used to stain

85. Westergrens pipette is used to estimate

86. LE cell preparation is done to demonstrate

87. Test for blood in urine is

88. Casts in urine are

89. Specific test for glucose in urine is

90. Glycosuria means urine contains

91. Compared to exudates the transudate would have

92. CSF fluid processing can be delayed upto

93. Methods to concentrate the fluid specimen while processing are all except

94. Quality of Sputum smear report depends on

95. Stool occult blood test is indicated in all except

96. Time required for fixation of cytology smears is